Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

What is a good investment portfolio for someone starting in their 20s? 90% VT and 10% BND for a Roth IRA then 100% TDF for a 401k?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Undercover cops in New York are riding the subways with iPods on to entice robbery. Is that a form of entrapment? If not, why not?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Have you ever been humiliated in front of a group of girls and enjoyed it?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: